Jump to content

did raja porus speak punjabi!?


Guest itsMe
 Share

Recommended Posts

Guest Jacfsing2
On 2/16/2017 at 6:21 PM, Guest itsMe said:

wjkk wjkf

Just wondering did raja porus speak punjabi!? just been reading about the history of Punjab recently.

No, he would have spoken Sanskrit since he was an elite, the commoners would probably speak a language only vaguely similar to Punjabi as it wasn't very evolved at the time. Elites didn't speak Punjabi until the Sikh faith came and gave Punjabi a legacy: Sanskrit ruled the entire system especially among Brahmins, Khatris, Vaishas, and Shudras, (untouchables would be speaking a completely Adivasi language).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

47 minutes ago, Jacfsing2 said:

No, he would have spoken Sanskrit since he was an elite, the commoners would probably speak a language only vaguely similar to Punjabi as it wasn't very evolved at the time. Elites didn't speak Punjabi until the Sikh faith came and gave Punjabi a legacy: Sanskrit ruled the entire system especially among Brahmins, Khatris, Vaishas, and Shudras, (untouchables would be speaking a completely Adivasi language).

wouldn't he have spoken Prakrit ? given that lower castes were forbidden from listening to the 'divine language' of sanskrit also the fact that Sanskrit was a literary language and Prakrit a speaking language with different dialects . 

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest Jacfsing2
1 hour ago, jkvlondon said:

wouldn't he have spoken Prakrit ? given that lower castes were forbidden from listening to the 'divine language' of sanskrit also the fact that Sanskrit was a literary language and Prakrit a speaking language with different dialects . 

Porus was a high caste; he also wouldn't be talking directly to his subjects, but rather had subordinates talking to the subjects for him; this led to him losing to Alexander the Great, cause he totally depended on a few Khatris instead of depending on his entire country. Compare this to the pre-Islamic Afghans who depended on each and every citizen to fight; and you can tell what the problem was in the structure, Alexander had to leave during the battle in Afghanistan because of them attempting to use everyone, (v.s only using an elite section of the population that even though they may have been better fighters could not be used productively).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

1 hour ago, Jacfsing2 said:

Porus was a high caste; he also wouldn't be talking directly to his subjects, but rather had subordinates talking to the subjects for him; this led to him losing to Alexander the Great, cause he totally depended on a few Khatris instead of depending on his entire country. Compare this to the pre-Islamic Afghans who depended on each and every citizen to fight; and you can tell what the problem was in the structure, Alexander had to leave during the battle in Afghanistan because of them attempting to use everyone, (v.s only using an elite section of the population that even though they may have been better fighters could not be used productively).

prakrit is older and is the base of many other old languages like Pali and Marathi. If we are talking preislamic  afghans they would have been more likely to have ties to this as well Northern Indians

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest Jacfsing2
9 hours ago, jkvlondon said:

prakrit is older and is the base of many other old languages like Pali and Marathi. If we are talking preislamic  afghans they would have been more likely to have ties to this as well Northern Indians

Let's take this out of India and compare it to another nation's king: King John of England; who was known for not really caring about the people, the language he spoke would be similar to Dutch, (his predecessor was known for not actually staying in his kingdom.) Also since he really was seperate from the people some Robin Hoods stood-up trying to fight the system: (some of these Robin Hoods became Shaheeds).

 Also if there is no Sikh religion which is the only true religion; why would any royalty speak the language associated with commoners?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

  • 3 years later...
Guest AjaySekhon
On 2/18/2017 at 3:05 AM, Guest Jacfsing2 said:

No, he would have spoken Sanskrit since he was an elite, the commoners would probably speak a language only vaguely similar to Punjabi as it wasn't very evolved at the time. Elites didn't speak Punjabi until the Sikh faith came and gave Punjabi a legacy: Sanskrit ruled the entire system especially among Brahmins, Khatris, Vaishas, and Shudras, (untouchables would be speaking a completely Adivasi language).

No you’re wrong language of that region at the time & era was persian ! sanskrit was language of the south & east ! the reality is harsh but accept it , sanskrit was not spoken by western part of india at the time !

Link to comment
Share on other sites

On 2/19/2017 at 12:14 AM, Guest Jacfsing2 said:

why would any royalty speak the language associated with commoners?

don't the uk royal family speak English?  don't the Japanese royal family speak Japanese?

why did Queen Elizabeth 1st even bother watching a Shakespeare play if she didn't care about English?

Do you think historically, Maharaja Ranjit Singh didn't speak punjabi?  How did he listen to 'commoners' if he didn't speak it?

Even the last moghul king spoke punjabi.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest jigsaw_puzzled-singh

Oh dear. Why did someone have to ask this question. I'm not welcome in these parts no more and I don't even come here - I'm just passing through - but there's no way I can't not say something. So:

No. They didn't speak Punjabi at that time.

No. They didn't speak Sanskrit or Prakit in Punjab at that time.

Yes and No. They could converse in old Persian very easily but it wasn't their everyday language.

Aramaic ?   I don't know but my guess - given the ancient inscriptions found in Punjab - is that they spoke the same language as Jesus, i,e Aramaic.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

On 2/1/2021 at 1:52 AM, Guest AjaySekhon said:

No you’re wrong language of that region at the time & era was persian ! sanskrit was language of the south & east ! the reality is harsh but accept it , sanskrit was not spoken by western part of india at the time !

is this a troll post?  you have a hindu name.

have you even heard modern persian, let alone ancient persian?  how much of it can you understand?

sanskrit was spoken in north indian at that time.   (Punjab is north india, not west.  west is Gujirat).

Porus spoke the ancient version/ precendant of 'punjabi'.  

by the way Prakit is not a language.  Prakit means 'natural' in Sanskrit.  Prakit is any natural language- e.g. punjabi, hindu, english.   

And Sanskrit was not used for everyday conversation.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
 Share

  • advertisement_alt
  • advertisement_alt
  • advertisement_alt


  • Topics

  • Posts

    • What do you mean?
    • Don't be a fool to the western civilization. 
    • This is where the vichola needs to get involved, and family!
    • Hi All, I havent been on this forum for a while but I thought id give it a try again as it helped me through some rough times earlier in my life. I wanted to seek for guidance on sikhi and marriage ... I noticed a post earlier on sanjog etc. and it got me thinking about my own life and marriage. For context, I have been married 3 years and things are not working out. When we met, I looked in to sanjog alot and it felt like it was written. However, as these years have gone by its become apparent that we no longer align with each other and our marriage is struggling. We dont seem to understand each other and things have fallen apart. We are at a stage now where separation/divorce is looking like the best option. Neither of us are happy and whilst we have tried to work things through in many different ways, after 3 years we have drifted away. What are the sikh views on this? is it written if we decide that we no longer serve each other? or is that a sin and should I continue to work at it? my issue at the moment is that it is draining me. I feel withdrawn from everything due to things going on between us including sikhi and going to the gurdwara.  Breaks my heart to even be writing this but I do think if we are both not happy and cant see a way of being happy then what is the point in continuing? Or should I be continuing and is it paap if we dont honour our laavan? if that is the case, what does sikhi say about marriage? how do I continue knowing everyday I feel the way I do?   Thanks
    • sorry ,   www.santbhagwansingh.co.uk
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Use